View Full Version : Question about disjunction
Shinizak
2009-07-09, 10:24 AM
While I was looking through the Phb, I saw that the spell M's Disjunction is actually an area affect, not a ray affect. So why is it depicted as a ray instead of an area? Did the giant could change the nature of the spell area or did he make some sort of mistake?
The Pink Ninja
2009-07-09, 10:25 AM
Rays look cooler
Optimystik
2009-07-09, 10:32 AM
Rule of Cool, Artistic License. Take your pick.
(Destruction (http://www.giantitp.com/comics/oots0369.html) isn't a ray either. He just does that sometimes.)
Shinizak
2009-07-09, 10:45 AM
Okay, I can accept that. :smalltongue:
(those words are uttered too few and far between on this board)
RMS Oceanic
2009-07-09, 10:46 AM
Alternatively, Jepthon the Archmage might have had that high arcana that allows you to change it into a ray.
Finwe
2009-07-09, 11:15 AM
Or, it was an AoE, but only the "trail" of the spell was visible.
Green and Red
2009-07-09, 02:28 PM
Alternatively, Jepthon the Archmage might have had that high arcana that allows you to change it into a ray.
Jephton himself says that disjunction was haertas spell, implying he dosnt even know it himself, in comic 652.
Edit: On second thought we cant rule out that haerta didnt have archmage-levels, or that the two splices could combine abilities in some form, but these sound rather unlikely
Bibliomancer
2009-07-09, 04:44 PM
It's reasonable to assume that, like the bead that flies to the center of a fireball spell, the track of the spell from V's finger to it's start is visible, in what appears to be a ray.
CliveStaples
2009-07-09, 04:46 PM
Oh, I thought this was about logic (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logical_disjunction).
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