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View Full Version : a question about spell failure. (3.5)



Mystic Muse
2009-12-27, 06:14 PM
okay. The reason given for Spell figure is that in armor you can't make the intricate gestures needed to quite as well. However what if you had the still spell feat? would that cancel spell failure out?

Milskidasith
2009-12-27, 06:16 PM
Yes. It's specifically mentioned any spell without somatic components can be cast without ASF. Other ways to ignore it include manifesting and certain class features.

Devils_Advocate
2009-12-28, 01:08 AM
Stilled spells lack somatic components and thus are not subject to arcane spell failure. Arcane spells that do have somatic components are still subject to arcane spell failure even if the spellcaster has the Still Spell feat.

Tavar
2009-12-28, 01:22 AM
Of course, this also brings up the question of what exactly makes these gestures so easily disrupted. My favorite explanation is that Somatic Components involve breakdancing.

Crow
2009-12-28, 01:22 AM
Stilled spells lack somatic components and thus are not subject to arcane spell failure. Arcane spells that do have somatic components are still subject to arcane spell failure even if the spellcaster has the Still Spell feat.


If you modify it with the Still Spell feat, it doesn't suffer arcane spell failure because it changes the spell to require no somatic components. Any spell without somatic components does not suffer ASF.

Or are you just trying to say (unclearly) that he doesn't negate the ASF by virtue of simply having the feat, and must apply it to the spell in question (as generally implied)?

deuxhero
2009-12-28, 01:33 AM
Not worth it, just grab a +1 mithiral twilight (BoED, PHB2 and MIC at least, +1, reduces ACF by 10) chain shirt (You aren't proficent, but the ACP is 0, and peneltys for non-proficent use are based on ACP...), you have dex for initiative already and as a wizard/sorc all sorts of buffs, all the AC you ever need.

Optimystik
2009-12-28, 01:35 AM
As Crow pointed out, merely having the feat is not enough. Like all metamagic, the arcanist must then apply it to the spell in question, either at preparation or at the time of casting depending on the specific class involved.


Of course, this also brings up the question of what exactly makes these gestures so easily disrupted. My favorite explanation is that Somatic Components involve breakdancing.

I just had an odd mental image of a psion curiously watching his wizard companion do the Worm.

Mystic Muse
2009-12-28, 02:13 AM
I'm aware that I still have to use the still spell feat. I would think that's implied.

Optimystik
2009-12-28, 02:15 AM
It's also implied that a still spell incurs no ASF :smalltongue:

Seriously though, I wasn't trying to lecture you - my post was merely for posterity's sake.

Devils_Advocate
2010-01-01, 08:59 PM
If you modify it with the Still Spell feat, it doesn't suffer arcane spell failure because it changes the spell to require no somatic components.
Yes, that is what I said.


Or are you just trying to say (unclearly) that he doesn't negate the ASF by virtue of simply having the feat, and must apply it to the spell in question (as generally implied)?
Yes, that is what I said (and I'm not seeing how it was unclear).

Milskidasith
2010-01-01, 09:09 PM
Yes, that is what I said.


Yes, that is what I said (and I'm not seeing how it was unclear).

You were unclear because you explained something that was already implied, which actually wound up making it sound like you were implying the still spell feat didn't do anything to negate ASF chance.

It became confusing because we either had to assume you assumed we had no clue how metamagic worked and didn't know we had to apply the feat for it to work, or that you were implying that still spell didn't remove the ASF chance on spells that already had it.