Whammydill
2010-03-19, 11:19 AM
If you mitigate paradox dice when casting vulgar spells down to 0, does paradox still get a chance dice?
Example:
A mage casts a vulgar spell for which he has a rote of (-1 dice), and uses his dedicated magical tool for (-1 dice.) He has a gnosis of 3 so his base Paradox dice pool is 2. Nothing further increases this so since his base dice are two, and his paradox mitigation is two, that leaves 0 dice. Chance dice? Then backlash if any successes rolled?
Example:
A mage casts a vulgar spell for which he has a rote of (-1 dice), and uses his dedicated magical tool for (-1 dice.) He has a gnosis of 3 so his base Paradox dice pool is 2. Nothing further increases this so since his base dice are two, and his paradox mitigation is two, that leaves 0 dice. Chance dice? Then backlash if any successes rolled?