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Maximum Zersk
2010-03-27, 01:27 AM
Okay, another what-if scenario.

What if the english language was never influenced, in any way, by Latin?

I can imagine one consequence would possibly be that we'd still be using the Anglo-Saxon Runes, but I don't know.

What I'm asking for is what it would be like, grammar-wise, and maybe a bit lexical-wise. Any ideas?

Maximum Zersk
2010-03-28, 04:45 PM
Anyone? :smallconfused:

Roland St. Jude
2010-03-28, 04:47 PM
Sheriff of Moddingham: This isn't a chat room. Please don't double post or thread bump. And if people don't want to discuss whatever you post on, you can't make them.