Maralais
2011-02-16, 12:07 PM
So, in the Pathfinder group that I DM, the party recently went to a town where a small lordhood was ruling. The lord had just died, so his son had taken his place. He was the mean ruler kind you see all the time, even with the annoying voice. So in the end, the party joined the rebels(they were all saying that kingdoms and reigns like that were righteous, mind you) and the Half-Orc knight of the Educated Orc Kingdom(see Our Orcs Are Different) killed the lord. After that, he offered the people to tell his king about these lands, so that he would send someone to rule them.
This is where my question comes in. Regarding the Medieval Age diplomacy rules, the fact that the Orc Kingdom and the Kingdom Where These Lands Used to Belong are in good terms, would the Orc King actually take these lands as his? They just rebelled, so we could say they are no longer a part of a kingdom, but how would the other kingdom react?
This is where my question comes in. Regarding the Medieval Age diplomacy rules, the fact that the Orc Kingdom and the Kingdom Where These Lands Used to Belong are in good terms, would the Orc King actually take these lands as his? They just rebelled, so we could say they are no longer a part of a kingdom, but how would the other kingdom react?