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View Full Version : Does Karmic Strike come before or after being hit?



veven
2011-05-07, 12:56 AM
I am aware that the opponent must successfully hit you to trigger Karmic Strike, but judging by the text it sounds like your attack comes first (I am assuming this mostly because Robilar's Gambit explicitly says you resolve your AOO after being attacked). If you killed or tripped (or otherwise disabled) the person making the attack, would this effectively prevent the damage?

Seerow
2011-05-07, 01:00 AM
I am aware that the opponent must successfully hit you to trigger Karmic Strike, but judging by the text it sounds like your attack comes first (I am assuming this mostly because Robilar's Gambit explicitly says you resolve your AOO after being attacked). If you killed or tripped (or otherwise disabled) the person making the attack, would this effectively prevent the damage?

Pretty sure that your attack resolves first.

Basically it would go:

-Enemy declares an attack, rolls, it's a success!
-Your attack of opportunity is provoked
-Your attack of opportunity is resolved
-The enemy's attack is resolved

Telasi
2011-05-07, 02:11 AM
The opportunity attack granted by Karmic Strike is resolved before the triggering attack. This means that you can negate the damage by disarming or sundering the opponent's weapon, or any other method you can think of to prevent the attack from being made.

danzibr
2011-05-07, 07:40 AM
It's like the stack on MtG. You attack, hit, in response I attack.