Elric VIII
2011-07-24, 08:33 PM
Q 53
a) Can a martial maneuver count for its own prerequisites?
For instance, can I learn Emerald Razor (requires 1 Diamond Mind maneuver) at Warblade 3, then use the ability to replace a maneuver at 4th level to replace the maneuver that I used to qualify for ER?
b) Similar to the above, can I take Martial Study to learn Moment of Perfect Mind (no prereqs), then take it again to learn Emerald Razor, then use the PHB2 rules to retrain the first Martial Study, and still br able to use ER?
A53)a) No, otherwise you'd also be able to use the skills /feats you gain from your next level to qualify for a PrC that you've not entered yet.
b) You'd lose the ability to use or benefit from features you no longer meet the prerequisites for until you qualify for them again (If you retrain power attack to point blank shot, you can't use cleave until you have power attack again.) Also, if you retrain away power attack, you don't technically have cleave (which requires power attack) for the moment of your new feat, so you couldn't take greater cleave even if you met all other prereqs.
There's a better example of this, but I can't think of it.
The thing is, you still meet the prerequisites of knowing one maneuver from school X.
This is more akin to getting into Fochlucan Lyrist using a Ring of Evasion, then taking 2 levels of Rogue and selling the ring. Which does work.
To clarify what I said, if you meet the prereqs after selecting the new feature, then it works, however you can't use a maneuver that requires another maneuver alone to qualify for a maneuver that requires another maneuver.
Think of it like this: for the brief moment that you're retraining off Maneuver A for Maneuver C, and Maneuver B (which you have) requires you to have Maneuver A or C. If Maneuver C requires Maneuver B, then you cannot because you don't have Maneuver B because you don't have Maneuver A.
If Maneuver C does not require Maneuver B, and Maneuver B requires Maneuver A or C, then you can because you'll temporarily effectively lose B, but when you get C you can use B again.
(If you require any additional discussion, a new thread might be required)
Here's what we've got so far.
I think that a maneuver can, technically, count itself as its own prerequisite, Groverfield disagrees. Is there anything solid to support either side?
a) Can a martial maneuver count for its own prerequisites?
For instance, can I learn Emerald Razor (requires 1 Diamond Mind maneuver) at Warblade 3, then use the ability to replace a maneuver at 4th level to replace the maneuver that I used to qualify for ER?
b) Similar to the above, can I take Martial Study to learn Moment of Perfect Mind (no prereqs), then take it again to learn Emerald Razor, then use the PHB2 rules to retrain the first Martial Study, and still br able to use ER?
A53)a) No, otherwise you'd also be able to use the skills /feats you gain from your next level to qualify for a PrC that you've not entered yet.
b) You'd lose the ability to use or benefit from features you no longer meet the prerequisites for until you qualify for them again (If you retrain power attack to point blank shot, you can't use cleave until you have power attack again.) Also, if you retrain away power attack, you don't technically have cleave (which requires power attack) for the moment of your new feat, so you couldn't take greater cleave even if you met all other prereqs.
There's a better example of this, but I can't think of it.
The thing is, you still meet the prerequisites of knowing one maneuver from school X.
This is more akin to getting into Fochlucan Lyrist using a Ring of Evasion, then taking 2 levels of Rogue and selling the ring. Which does work.
To clarify what I said, if you meet the prereqs after selecting the new feature, then it works, however you can't use a maneuver that requires another maneuver alone to qualify for a maneuver that requires another maneuver.
Think of it like this: for the brief moment that you're retraining off Maneuver A for Maneuver C, and Maneuver B (which you have) requires you to have Maneuver A or C. If Maneuver C requires Maneuver B, then you cannot because you don't have Maneuver B because you don't have Maneuver A.
If Maneuver C does not require Maneuver B, and Maneuver B requires Maneuver A or C, then you can because you'll temporarily effectively lose B, but when you get C you can use B again.
(If you require any additional discussion, a new thread might be required)
Here's what we've got so far.
I think that a maneuver can, technically, count itself as its own prerequisite, Groverfield disagrees. Is there anything solid to support either side?