Steal spell question

[Cranthis]

Quick question me and a friend are debating about, for Steal Spell. He was asleep, so I just repeatedly touched him and took all of his spells (he was being an ass while he was conscious) but he says that, even though he is asleep, I actually have to attack him to take it, since he would be unwilling while conscious. I disagree. He is unconscious and has no ability to choose. Any help would be appreciated.

[Medic!]

AFAIK unconcious always means willing


In D&D too *badum-psh*

[Cranthis]

I have no idea what AFAIK is.

Also, do you have a source.

[Medic!]

As Far As I Know (sorry, accronyms are AIDS)

From the Rules Compendium p.134 (under Targetting)

(because I can search it easier than my DMG PDF)

Willing Targets
Some spells are restricted
to willing
targets only. Declaring
yourself as a willing
target is something
that can be done at any
time, even if you’re fl atfooted
or it isn’t your
turn. Unconscious
creatures are considered
willing, but
a creature that
is conscious but
immobile or helpless—
such as one
who is bound, cowering,
grappling,
paralyzed, pinned,
or stunned—isn’t automatically
willing.



EDIT: On a side note, I absolutely love this idea.

[Cranthis]

Can I find that anywhere else?

[Medic!]

Target or Targets (for spells) from the SRD. (http://www.d20srd.org/srd/magicOverview/spellDescriptions.htm#targetorTargets)

[Cranthis]

Thats for things with saves, not steal spell. I might need a little more verification.

[nedz]

IIRC Steal Spell doesn't grant a save, it only requires a Touch Attack.
So yes you do have to attack him.
The attack roll should be trivial though, and if you should miss - well he's still asleep.
I'm not sure if that would wake him up, or maybe trigger some other defence he may have ?

[hex0]

You can hit him to deal non-lethal damage