PDA

View Full Version : Can an Immediate Action interrupt a Free Action?



LordotheMorning
2012-11-10, 03:03 AM
So, things are pretty tangled up right now. There's a character in my campaign who can scry-and-die teleport in on our party, use Instantaneous Rage, Intimidating Rage, and Imperious Command to force a DC 42 level check or Cower.

If I have an immediate action teleport (and am not flat-footed), can I use it before he makes me cower? The opposing side argued that due to the text of Instantaneous Rage, he can (because it's a "free" action that can be taken on other people's turns to preempt things, such as my teleport). Does this necessarily trump an Immediate Action?

Later on in said scenario, I ended up being cowed until the start of this opponent's next turn. As his turn began, it was argued that his Free-Action Blade Barrier should be cast-able before I use my immediate action teleport by merit of it being a free action. The special text of instantaneous rage doesn't apply here. Isn't it correct that an immediate action can interrupt a free action?

Aegis013
2012-11-10, 03:50 AM
Actually, based on the SRD, only immediate actions can explicitly be used out of turn. So immediate actions, by my estimation of RAI, I think, trump free actions in time priority.

Edit: One of those times you wish D&D had a stack mechanic like M:tG.

Anecronwashere
2012-11-10, 03:58 AM
Immediates trump Free and Free trumps Immediate.
Both are interrupts.

If you are Immediate-Teleporting away after he declares the DC42 or Cower you disappear without being scared.
If you are Immediate-Teleportig away and in response someone activates Blade Barrier then it goes before his.

It's the same with a Readied Action, it is a free action that goes off to interrupt a preset trigger condition and activates right before the action.

So Responses happen before the Event that triggers them.
Event: Fear effect Response: Teleport.
Teleport goes off beforehand

Event: Teleport Response: Blade barrier
Blade barrier goes off beforehand

F0X7713
2012-11-10, 04:12 AM
Actually, based on the SRD, only immediate actions can explicitly be used out of turn. So immediate actions, by my estimation of RAI, I think, trump free actions in time priority.

Edit: One of those times you wish D&D had a stack mechanic like M:tG.

Isn't that the truth. =)

Hirax
2012-11-10, 04:29 AM
I can't find the citation, but my recollection is that somewhere in the Rules Compendium it specifies that actions are resolved in the opposite order in which that are declared. Meaning that if you used an immediate action after someone else used a free action, you'd go first, but if they use a another free or immediate action in response to your declaration of taking an immediate action, they go first, then you go, then their original action is resolved after that.

LordotheMorning
2012-11-10, 04:51 AM
I can't find the citation, but my recollection is that somewhere in the Rules Compendium it specifies that actions are resolved in the opposite order in which that are declared. Meaning that if you used an immediate action after someone else used a free action, you'd go first, but if they use a another free or immediate action in response to your declaration of taking an immediate action, they go first, then you go, then their original action is resolved after that.

Just went through the Rules Compendium, but couldn't find it. I am gonna need some actual text to convince my dm though. =/

Hirax
2012-11-10, 05:16 AM
According to this thread (http://www.giantitp.com/forums/showthread.php?t=234439), the Miniatures Handbook does state that the last immediate action declared goes first, though no page number is given. Maybe your DM will make you go trawling, maybe not, though it'd be a dumb for them to, given that last action declared goes first is the only sensible way to resolve immediate actions.