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View Full Version : Why is psionic so, different?



silverwolfer
2012-12-20, 01:14 PM
I understand the spell use system, and differences of source of the power.

but why is divine and arcane considered equal to each other, when it comes to resistances and anti magic fields, but psionic is all by itself. Why does divine and arcane not get treated with as much degree of separation?

Yora
2012-12-20, 01:16 PM
Psionic was different in older editions, but in 3rd Edition it is pretty much the same thing. Unless you use an optional rule for the campaign, Magic Resistance and Psionic Resistance are the same thing and dispel magic can dispel psionic powers and dispel psionics can dispell magic spells.
The only difference is that one uses slots and the other points.

Rubik
2012-12-20, 02:14 PM
Psionic was different in older editions, but in 3rd Edition it is pretty much the same thing. Unless you use an optional rule for the campaign, Magic Resistance and Psionic Resistance are the same thing and dispel magic can dispel psionic powers and dispel psionics can dispell magic spells.
The only difference is that one uses slots and the other points.

I think SW gets that. I think he's referring to Spellcraft/Psicraft and UMD/UPD. I could be wrong, though.

There's also metamagic/metapsionic separation. I can understand that there's a difference between slots and points, but it's really easy to convert one to the other. Take the metamagic level adjustment, subtract 1, and double, and that's the cost in power points (minimum 0). The effective reduction in cost is made up for by the fact that you have to expend psionic focus.

silverwolfer
2012-12-20, 03:02 PM
Actually , am more talking about D&D treats it like this


Arcane Divine / PSI

Spell Resistance / Psionic Resistance

Spell Like abilties / Psi like abilties


Why not was it treated as

Arcane/ Divine/ Psi

and well everything that goes from that point

Andreaz
2012-12-20, 03:06 PM
I understand the spell use system, and differences of source of the power.

but why is divine and arcane considered equal to each other, when it comes to resistances and anti magic fields, but psionic is all by itself. Why does divine and arcane not get treated with as much degree of separation?"Because", really. 3.5 recommends not separating the effects, but still separates the skills. Pathfinder did away with it entirely, making psionic a different domain of magic just like arcane and divine.
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The only way to go further is melding the feats together, so that a metapsionic and a metamagic are the same thing. Some item creations also operate like that.
My tables always merge everything.

Lateral
2012-12-20, 07:46 PM
Actually , am more talking about D&D treats it like this


Arcane Divine / PSI

Spell Resistance / Psionic Resistance

Spell Like abilties / Psi like abilties


Why not was it treated as

Arcane/ Divine/ Psi

and well everything that goes from that point

The logic was probably that Arcane and Divine both use spell slots, but Psionics uses a different, PP-based system.

Flickerdart
2012-12-20, 08:12 PM
Arcane and divine are just two means of acquiring what is largely the same ability - casting spells. A Cleric and a Wizard can get together and start shooting Summon Monster spells at one another, and use largely the same mechanisms to do so. They're both tapping into a foreign source of power (hell, in FR, arcane magic all comes from one god's thing) to accomplish what they want to do: wizards coax it out with gobbledygook and eye of newt, and clerics just ask for it. Psionic power, on the other hand, comes from within through meditative insight and force of will, and is generally far more flexible than magic for that reason, measure for measure - an enlarge person is a package deal, but an expansion can be tweaked quite a bit just by thinking really hard, without needing to learn any fancy metamagic.

shadow_archmagi
2012-12-20, 09:11 PM
I am unsure why there's the big hubbub about Psicraft vs Spellcraft and so on though. If Psionic Resistance is functionally identical to Spell Resistance in all respects, why would you even rename it?

Flickerdart
2012-12-20, 09:52 PM
In legacy editions, psionic-magic transparency was the default - psionics were a unique, special kind of power. WotC probably wanted to make it easy for DMs and players coming from these older D&Ds to sort their psionics off from everything else easily if they wanted. Saying "if you use Psionics Are Different, monsters with the psionic subtype have special Spell Resistance that only stops powers and not spells" is a lot more annoying than just saying "if you use Psionics Are Different, Power Resistance doesn't affect spells".

Basically, WotC took a variant, made it the default, and didn't want to make grognards mad about it.

Rubik
2012-12-21, 01:43 PM
In legacy editions, psionic-magic transparency was the default - psionics were a unique, special kind of power. WotC probably wanted to make it easy for DMs and players coming from these older D&Ds to sort their psionics off from everything else easily if they wanted. Saying "if you use Psionics Are Different, monsters with the psionic subtype have special Spell Resistance that only stops powers and not spells" is a lot more annoying than just saying "if you use Psionics Are Different, Power Resistance doesn't affect spells".

Basically, WotC took a variant, made it the default, and didn't want to make grognards mad about it.You mean non-transparency was the default.

Now transparency is the default, and non-transparency requires tons of work to not be broken.

umbergod
2012-12-21, 01:50 PM
Yeah, psionics was beyond a headache in 2nd edition imo. 3.5 fixed it by essentially making it magic but with a few quirks like skills and such

Spuddles
2012-12-21, 07:01 PM
I am unsure why there's the big hubbub about Psicraft vs Spellcraft and so on though. If Psionic Resistance is functionally identical to Spell Resistance in all respects, why would you even rename it?

There are a few powers that grant PR that are exceptions to transparency, I believe. Been awhile since I looked at them.

HunterOfJello
2012-12-21, 08:30 PM
A general answer that I can give is that psionics is different in some aspects purely because it isn't core. It doesn't appear in the 3 core books, it appears in a splatbook. The rules in splatbooks never quite completely mesh with the things that were established in the core books (not that those mesh completely with one another).