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View Full Version : How exactly does Spell Storing work in Pathfinder?



AttilaTheGeek
2013-02-01, 06:56 PM
Title says it all. The Spell Storing (http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic-items/magic-weapons/magic-weapon-special-abilities/spell-storing) weapon property is super cool, and I like it a lot. The only question I still have is whether or not a stored spell needs its own attack roll. I asked in the simple Q&A, and got two helpful responses, but it's still an important caveat.


It's the weapon doing the casting, therefore no AoO on the character. I'd also think the spell is probably intended to behave as if cast by whoever put it on the weapon in the first place. So spells follow their own mechanics once discharged : those with save DCs auto-hit and must overcome the target's SR and saving throw.

... As for rays and touch attacks? No idea.

P.S.
Any self-respecting spell storing weapon user will use it as a healing shiv at least once. I hope you will uphold this noble tradition.


A451 Basically what player A says, but there are several key points you might have missed.

The weapon casts, not the wielder! So, no provoking by the wielder.
Also following the logic that casting a swift action spell does not provoke, neither do free action spells, since the time consumed by those types of action is specifically stated somewhere to be kind of equal.


A quick check of the usual suspects returned that ray spells (specifically acid arrow and scorching ray) do not have a target.
If (and that is at least a medium sized "if") this is consistent throughout Pathfinder, step 2c) of player A never comes into play :smallsmile:

All emphasis in the quotes mine

Edit: half-ninja'd. But the thing about non-touch spells that require an attack is still valid as far as I can see right now

But I'm not sure what was meant. If I hit someone with a Spell Storing (Shocking Grasp) weapon, does the Shocking Grasp need its own attack roll?

AttilaTheGeek
2013-02-02, 03:29 PM
Bumping to try and get a rules clarification.

ericgrau
2013-02-02, 03:55 PM
Now that I read the weapon property, it doesn't seem to say. I always assume the spell automatically hit since the weapon hit and you're already in contact with the target, but you may need to dig around for a FAQ answer or opinions since the RAW doesn't seem to be 100% certain.

These guys seem to think you roll again instead, and might crit:
http://paizo.com/threads/rzs2mywg?Spell-Storing-and-Critical-hits

jindra34
2013-02-02, 04:00 PM
Now that I read the weapon property, it doesn't seem to say. I always assume the spell automatically hit since the weapon hit, but you may need to dig around for a FAQ answer or opinions since the RAW doesn't seem to be 100% certain.

It used to work exactly that way in 3.5. Had a line covering it and all. And that line is now gone.

ericgrau
2013-02-02, 04:01 PM
But it's not in the 3.5 SRD either, and PF is a direct copy-paste of the 3.5 SRD except for "This special ability can only be placed on melee weapons."

I don't see that auto-hit rule in my DMG nor the 3.0 SRD either.

tyckspoon
2013-02-02, 04:04 PM
I say no- hitting with the weapon is sufficient and the stored spell (if it is a suitable Targeted touch attack, such as Shocking Grasp.. it should be noted that the language of Spell Storing means you *can't* put Effect: Ray spells in it) is applied to the target with no further roll needed. The property states that the spell is cast on the subject hit with the weapon; if the spell stored within the weapon can *miss*, then it is not cast on the target, is it? So in order for the property to do what it says it does- cast a spell on the guy you hit- that spell must always take effect once you actually hit a guy.

(Alternately, yes, you have to roll for the spell again, but as per normal rules for touch spells you do not discharge the spell if you miss and can try again next time you hit with the weapon. But I don't favor this.)