PDA

View Full Version : Does Malak have free will?



enier
2013-03-02, 05:28 PM
Malak's constant talk about how he is a slave/servant makes me wonder whether he is still bound to the vampire who turned him. At the very least, how long was he enslaved?

One of my theories is that after Malak was turned he was ordered to destroy his own tribe and possibly other nasty things. The only way he could (un)live with himself after that was to think of himself as a slave who is simply "following orders".

teratorn
2013-03-02, 05:45 PM
That's a loaded question, and you're grasping at straws to see Malack as some sort of dramatic figure, victim of destiny.

On the one hand the concept of free will is tricky, in the real world recent work has shown that there is no such thing as what traditionally is thought as free will, our brains make the decisions before we arrive at conscious decisions. On the other hand OOTS is not the real world, so we may assume they have «real» free will, and everything leads me to think that Malack could behave differently if he were inclined to do so. I'd say he's completely free-willy. He will be the ruler of the new world order, his only lord seems to be his god.

Anarion
2013-03-02, 06:01 PM
Malak's constant talk about how he is a slave/servant makes me wonder whether he is still bound to the vampire who turned him. At the very least, how long was he enslaved?

One of my theories is that after Malak was turned he was ordered to destroy his own tribe and possibly other nasty things. The only way he could (un)live with himself after that was to think of himself as a slave who is simply "following orders".

He's made no indication that he's under any kind of magical compulsion. His goals fit with the type of creature that he is, and it's arguable that being undead somehow warps the mind to favor evil.

But on an individual, choice by choice, day by day sort of basis, he's given no indication that he lacks free will, even if it's been modified a bit by an outside source.

Koo Rehtorb
2013-03-02, 06:04 PM
After 200 years odds are on the side of the vampire who sired him being dead.

FujinAkari
2013-03-02, 06:17 PM
Odds are no vampire sired him. He is the high priest of the God of Death, I believe his vampirism is self-inflicted.

KillianHawkeye
2013-03-02, 06:37 PM
I got the impression that he was a willing servant.

Mike Havran
2013-03-02, 06:42 PM
Odds are no vampire sired him. He is the high priest of the God of Death, I believe his vampirism is self-inflicted.

How can you self-inflict vamprisim?

hoff
2013-03-02, 06:52 PM
He is a servant of his god, Nergal. The vampire who turned him is probably destroyed.

Roland Itiative
2013-03-02, 07:11 PM
How can you self-inflict vamprisim?
Usually has to do with a divinity getting pissed. Or an evil deity who wants to "bless" a follower.

Gray Mage
2013-03-02, 10:43 PM
Odds are no vampire sired him. He is the high priest of the God of Death, I believe his vampirism is self-inflicted.

Unlikely, since he was a "ignorant barbarian shaman" by his own accounts, so I doubt he was a high priest, or even any priest. Possibly the vampire that sired him was a cleric of Nergal and also converted him, but that's only my guess.

Anyway, he's probably not bound anymore, the slavery he mentions is the relationship with his god, not with another vampire.


How can you self-inflict vamprisim?

Well, in D&D lore Count Strahd von Zarovich is a self-inflicted vampire. It envolved some sort of ritual and killing his brother, still, there's a bit of precedent. Divine blessing from Nergal is another possibility. I still don't think this is the case, though.

Charity322
2013-03-03, 12:43 AM
If he wanted to self-inflict undeath upon himself he could have become a Lich.

rodneyAnonymous
2013-03-03, 12:49 AM
If he wanted to self-inflict undeath upon himself he could have become a Lich.

I was going to say "liches are arcane spellcasters" but it turns out in D&D clerics can become liches too. Didn't know that. Huh.

Zmeoaice
2013-03-03, 12:54 AM
If he wanted to self-inflict undeath upon himself he could have become a Lich.

He might want to keep his human form.

Shamans are known for contacting the spirit world, so it is possible that he did self-inflict rather than get bitten.

SaintRidley
2013-03-03, 12:59 AM
I was going to say "liches are arcane spellcasters" but it turns out in D&D clerics can become liches too. Didn't know that. Huh.

An evil Druid could even become a lich. Becoming the eternal fury of nature would be one way for the druid to attempt to justify that.

Mutant Sheep
2013-03-03, 12:59 AM
How can you self-inflict vamprisim?
Well, there has to be someway to do it. If biting is the only way to spread vampirism, then how did the original vampires exist? *too lazy to actually look this up*

rodneyAnonymous
2013-03-03, 01:19 AM
...how did the original vampires exist

Different mythologies have different "first vampire" stories (Vlad Dracul and Judas Iscariot are popular subjects), but as far as I know there is no D&D one. Count Strahd von Zarovich is a D&D vampire with self-inflicted vampirism, he "made a pact with death - a pact of blood" and murdered his brother (out of jealousy). So it is possible Nergal made Malack a vampire, instead of another vampire having done it.

Stormlock
2013-03-03, 01:46 AM
Cleric Lich is a lot scarier at that. All those resistances and immunities go even farther when you can heal yourself. Plus clerics get way better abjurations and buffs, like freedom of movement and forbiddence. The right combination of spells can make a nigh impenetrable tomb for a phylactery.

Grogmir
2013-03-03, 05:24 PM
the slavery he mentions is the relationship with his god, not with another vampire.

That was my understanding of it too.

Raiki
2013-03-03, 05:34 PM
How can you self-inflict vamprisim?

Clearly you've never read "The Vampire Lestat" (Sequel to Interview with the Vampire).

One of the coolest Vamps in the book (who you meet only briefly in a flashback) self-converted.

Even though the book is old, I'll spoiler the details for anyone who still cares to read it.

His name was Magnus, a vampire in 18th century France. He found out about vampires while still a human (centuries before), and decided he wanted to be one. He captured and chained up a vampire, intentionally bled himself to the point of near-death, then drank the vampire's blood. Easy peasy.

So yes, there is a precedent in literature as well as in D&D Canon.

dps
2013-03-04, 01:56 AM
He might want to keep his human form.


Given that he looks like a legless, albino lizardfolk, that didn't work, did it? :smallbiggrin: