sutasafaia
2016-03-19, 04:36 AM
Is there any ruling on this? There is a cleric in our party that purchased a wand of magic missile and is insisting that it can be used since it is now part of the cleric spell list. I tried to explain that a cleric without the domain does not, in fact, have the spell in their spell list. He countered by saying that a sorcerer who chose not to take fireball doesn't have fireball on their spell list either. Of course, it's still in the sorcerer spell list, the sorcerer chose not to take it. So he said that it's the same for the cleric, it's on the cleric spell list, any cleric can choose the force domain and have it, so it's the same thing, they just chose not to use that domain.
He's not going to give in on this one without a rule one way or the other. Is there one? He will not accept any kind of house rule or gm decision from another group, he wants a rule. The gm in our game has decided he will wait to find out if there is an official rule before he makes any kind of house rule on it, since he's trying to be as fair as possible. Rule of fun says let him have his wand (it's magic missile after all), and since it was purchased a few sessions ago the ruling is that he can use the current wand (even if it turns out he shouldn't be able to), but my gm wants to avoid this coming up again later with higher level spells and would prefer an official rule if one exists.
Our gm will house rule if there is no real rule, but still prefers to have a real rule to keep things as fair for everybody as possible. Just in case it wasn't obvious, the cleric in the party does not have the force domain.
Long story short: Is there any official rule about if a cleric can use a wand for a spell that is only available to a cleric through a domain, if the cleric does not have the domain himself.
He's not going to give in on this one without a rule one way or the other. Is there one? He will not accept any kind of house rule or gm decision from another group, he wants a rule. The gm in our game has decided he will wait to find out if there is an official rule before he makes any kind of house rule on it, since he's trying to be as fair as possible. Rule of fun says let him have his wand (it's magic missile after all), and since it was purchased a few sessions ago the ruling is that he can use the current wand (even if it turns out he shouldn't be able to), but my gm wants to avoid this coming up again later with higher level spells and would prefer an official rule if one exists.
Our gm will house rule if there is no real rule, but still prefers to have a real rule to keep things as fair for everybody as possible. Just in case it wasn't obvious, the cleric in the party does not have the force domain.
Long story short: Is there any official rule about if a cleric can use a wand for a spell that is only available to a cleric through a domain, if the cleric does not have the domain himself.