Curse of Strhad player question *SPOILERS*

[SMac8988]

So my group has entered valikai and through some poor choices fought Izak, spells wrong, way early. We won, by the skin of our teeth and using a lot of dirty tricks. Grappling and restraining him and all.

My question is, my dm wasn't a hundred percent on the battle axe Izak uses, and orginally ruled that it was just a battle axe that did 2d8 one handed and 2d10 two handed. I managed to sway him that it was large in size and the one handed use needed to be 2 handed for 2d8 and the two handed would be over sized and be at disadvantage.

I was given it with that ruling since the fighter, who orginally claimed it, is a two weapon fighter and didn't want to give that up. I still have a great sword if needed, and am 3 levels in barb so can reckless for a regular attack for 2d10.

I was wondering if this is how this is suppose to be used, or what other DM's have ruled on this?

[BDRook]

The attacks and damage monsters do don't necessarily correlate to the weapon they're holding. Unless the axe is magic and it's stats say otherwise it would just do normal damage to what it says in the Player's Handbook.

[Caskwell]

Izek's melee attack with the battle axe is 2d8+mod because he has the Brute feature which gives him an extra damage die when attacking with a melee weapon. The feature even helpfully says that it's included in the attack description later in the stat block. If he wielded it two-handed it goes to 2d10+mod, as expected - again also noted in the stat block.

So, it's just a normal battle axe that happens to be wielded by a Brute of a man.

[SMac8988]

That's what I figured was something along those lines. Man that would be a really good feat at some point to open up to pcs.