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MarkVIIIMarc
2019-11-12, 06:03 PM
Hello,

Do I understand correctly that RAW a Spellcaster without the Warcaster feat can not cast even a Cantrip as a melee Opportunity Attack?

Assuming they can not, are there any RAI or excuses for allowing it w/o the feat?

The Opportunity Attack rules as written use the word melee and I have read it as being a weapon attack but some spells lile Vampiric Touch reference melee SPELL attacks.

Trandir
2019-11-12, 06:13 PM
Making a melee attack is different from casting a spell.

By RAW and RAI a spellcaster without War Caster can perform an Opportunity Attack by attacking with his weapon if he/she wields one or with an unarmed strike if it's unarmed.

CheddarChampion
2019-11-12, 06:49 PM
I'd allow it but only if the damage was as though a 1st level caster cast it.
No need for a level 17 cleric tanking it up with Spirit Guardians, Spiritual Weapon, and Toll the Dead get another 4d12+5 (with Potent Spellcasting) Toll the Dead cast when the fighter is limited to a 1d8+9 (with a +2 longsword and the dueling style) or what have you.
The cleric will just have to suffer the terrible stress of taking a feat to get the extra damage. Poor cleric.

JNAProductions
2019-11-12, 08:02 PM
Yeah, you gotta make an attack with a weapon or unarmed strike. Spells don't work, without Warcaster.

And that's fine.

Addaran
2019-11-12, 09:21 PM
Hello,

The Opportunity Attack rules as written use the word melee and I have read it as being a weapon attack but some spells lile Vampiric Touch reference melee SPELL attacks.

At first i was gonna say, of course you can't, RAW and RAI. But since you mention Vampiric Touch specificaly, i think i'd let that one work. IF it's already casted. At that point, you're just doing the basic one action=one vampiric touch, not actually casting.

For sure, i wouldn't let someone cast a cantrip as an opportunity attack, that's exactly what the feat is for.