Maths question

[Spacewolf]

Thanks for the answers.

[Strigon]

If you're getting paid the same annual salary, then to convert x/y into 1/1, you need to cross multiply - x/y times y/x.

In that case, that's 4/3 times 3/4. 3/4 is equal to 0.75, so yes, you would have 4/3 x 3/4.


Edit: Scratch what I said about equal pay. Yes, to compare the payments, per time worked, you'd do exactly that.

[Khedrac]

Possibly an easier way to think about it is:

You want pay per time worked - and "per" basically comes out as "divide by"

So, if you know a week's pay in both cases:
1 week = 7 days
so at 1:1 you work 3.5 days
So divide 1 week's pay by 3.5 to get the pay per day worked.

And on the 4:3 you work 4 days in a week
So divide the week's pay by 4 to get the pay per day worked.

You then have two "per day worked" figures to compare.

The important thing comparing pay rates is to get the "per X" parts identical.

[Ibrinar]

I believe Khedrac is correct so to convert you multiply by 3.5/4=08.75. Why the difference? Because with the first calculation where you compare 4 days work to 3 days work and see 3 is 75% of 4 you add an error because you compare 4 days work in a 7 day span to 3 days work in a 6 day span.

[veti]

I would think of it this way.

Think about a two-week period. On 1:1, you would be working 7 days out of 14; on 4:3, you would work 8 days. So if the daily rate is the same either way (big assumption, very unlikely to be true in my experience), the 4:3 regime would give you about 114% (8/7) of the pretax income of 1:1.