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Thread: Maths question

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    Ogre in the Playground
     
    WolfInSheepsClothing

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    Default Maths question

    Thanks for the answers.
    Last edited by Spacewolf; 2020-12-21 at 05:06 PM.

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    Bugbear in the Playground
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    Default Re: Maths question

    If you're getting paid the same annual salary, then to convert x/y into 1/1, you need to cross multiply - x/y times y/x.

    In that case, that's 4/3 times 3/4. 3/4 is equal to 0.75, so yes, you would have 4/3 x 3/4.


    Edit: Scratch what I said about equal pay. Yes, to compare the payments, per time worked, you'd do exactly that.
    Last edited by Strigon; 2020-12-18 at 09:46 AM.
    That's all I can think of, at any rate.

    Quote Originally Posted by remetagross View Post
    All hail the mighty Strigon! One only has to ask, and one shall receive.

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    Troll in the Playground
     
    PaladinGuy

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    Default Re: Maths question

    Possibly an easier way to think about it is:

    You want pay per time worked - and "per" basically comes out as "divide by"

    So, if you know a week's pay in both cases:
    1 week = 7 days
    so at 1:1 you work 3.5 days
    So divide 1 week's pay by 3.5 to get the pay per day worked.

    And on the 4:3 you work 4 days in a week
    So divide the week's pay by 4 to get the pay per day worked.

    You then have two "per day worked" figures to compare.

    The important thing comparing pay rates is to get the "per X" parts identical.

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    Bugbear in the Playground
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    Nov 2013

    Default Re: Maths question

    I believe Khedrac is correct so to convert you multiply by 3.5/4=08.75. Why the difference? Because with the first calculation where you compare 4 days work to 3 days work and see 3 is 75% of 4 you add an error because you compare 4 days work in a 7 day span to 3 days work in a 6 day span.

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    Troll in the Playground
     
    Kobold

    Join Date
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    Default Re: Maths question

    I would think of it this way.

    Think about a two-week period. On 1:1, you would be working 7 days out of 14; on 4:3, you would work 8 days. So if the daily rate is the same either way (big assumption, very unlikely to be true in my experience), the 4:3 regime would give you about 114% (8/7) of the pretax income of 1:1.
    "None of us likes to be hated, none of us likes to be shunned. A natural result of these conditions is, that we consciously or unconsciously pay more attention to tuning our opinions to our neighbor’s pitch and preserving his approval than we do to examining the opinions searchingly and seeing to it that they are right and sound." - Mark Twain

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