Quote Originally Posted by OldTrees1 View Post
What someone wants may, or may not be morally relevant, and if relevant may be moral or immoral. So while the overall question "What ought one do?" might have a large answer (John Stuart Mills thought the theory of Utilitarianism was the answer), I have no reason to presume the answer depends on what I want or to presume any other hidden purpose.

This core of disagreement might not be resolvable. And that is okay.
In objective morality, you either must define "moral/immoral" as the fixed axis, in which case you've essentially stated "moral = good" and thus it is no longer the #defined answer to the question "what ought I to do?" with no hidden assumptions about goals, or you must accept that the answer to the question "What ought I to do?" depends on what you want.

The moment you insist that "moral == good," you can try to claim that you ought to do the moral thing, but you are now open to the question, "Why should I be moral?" And now we're right back to it depending on what I want.

The only reason "moral" as defined previously - the answer to the question "What ought I to do?" - depends on what you want is because all "ought" questions require motivation. It is fundamentally impossible to have "ought" without a motivation.