Quote Originally Posted by jk7275 View Post
Having printing press or something equivalent existed does not necessarily mean high literacy rate. I did see claims that it took more then 200 years after the printing press for the literacy rate. to go over 50%

As a side note I been involved with D&D 1st and tend to join groups that are old school, and have worlds heavily based off medieval europe
True. But I was pushing back against the opposite, that D&D doesn't have the printing press and thus shouldn't have high literacy. It does have the printing press, and can (but does not necessarily need to) have high literacy. You can choose either way, but don't blame it on missing the printing press.

And as far as old school == based on medieval europe...D&D has been anachronistic since day 1. It's had alien spaceships, out-of-period weapons and armor, "feudal" (but not in the real sense) governments, high literacy, inappropriate technology, etc since the very beginning. It's never been based on medieval europe. And we're in the 5e forum, which is even less based on medieval europe than any edition (except maybe 4e). 5e is based on D&D, mostly. With circular influence from popular media (most of which was influenced by earlier editions of D&D). It's not realistic. It's not designed to be realistic. It's an entirely different fictional world with entirely different history.