Quote Originally Posted by Peelee View Post
You mean the infinity between 2 and 3 is as large as the infinity of the natural number set? Because if so, no, the first one is greater. Not all infinite sets are equal.
It depends on if you count the rational or the real numbers between 2 and 3. There are as many rational numbers between 2 and 3 as there are natural numbers, but the number of real numbers between 2 and 3 is an order (is that the right term in English?) higher.